Lessons #549 and 550
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+ 1. It is best to use this note after you have listened to the lessons because there are +
+ comments given in the actual delivery not in the note. +
+ 2. The Bible abbreviations are as follows: CEV =Contemporary English version, +
+ CEB = Common English Bible, ESV= English Standard Version, +
+ GW = God’s Word Translation, ISV = International Standard Version, +
+ NAB=New American Bible, NASB= New American Standard Bible, +
+ NEB= New English Bible, NET = New English Translation, +
+ NLT = New Living Translations NJB = New Jerusalem Bible, +
+ NJV = New Jewish Bible, TEV = Today’s English Version. +
+AMP = Amplified Bible, UBS = United Bible Society +
+ 3. Notes have not been edited for grammatical errors. +
+ 4. Text is based on 1984 edition of the NIV +
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Resurrection Related Matters (1 Cor 15:20-28)
…25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death. 27 For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ. 28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.
Let me remind you that the message of this section of 1 Corinthians 15:20-28 that we have been considering for some time is that Christ’s resurrection ensures orderly future resurrection and successful conclusion of God’s plan in relationship to creation. Our last study focused on the duration of the reign of Christ before He hands over to God the Father sovereignty or authority related to redemption as what it means by successful conclusion of God’s plan or human history. The period of the reign of Christ as it relates to redemption terminates after Christ has rendered inactive all those that are hostile to God, with death being the last enemy to be rendered inactive or inoperative. The apostle having described the termination of the reign of Christ related to redemption in 1 Corinthians 15:25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet continues to support his discourse by quoting from the Scripture. It is with this that we begin our study this morning.
Apostle Paul introduced the basis or explanation of his assertion regarding the activities associated with the termination of the reign of Christ that is related to His redemptive work. We say this because of the word For that begins verse 27. The word “for” is translated from a Greek word (gar) that has several usages. For example, it can be used as a marker of inference with the meaning “so, then, by all means” or it can be used as a marker of cause or reason for something in which case it may be translated “for, because.” It can used as a marker of clarification or explanation so that it may be translated “for” or “you see.” It is in the sense of providing explanation or basis of the activities of Christ that the apostle mentioned in verses 25 and 26 that the word is used in verse 27.
The apostle supports his explanation or basis for his assertion regarding the activities associated with the termination of the reign of Christ that is related to His redemptive work by quoting from the OT Scripture. His quotation is given in the NIV in the first sentence of 1 Corinthians 15:27 he “has put everything under his feet.” An observant reader will immediately think that there must be an error by the publishers of the NIV in the quotation marks used in the NIV because the pronoun “he” is not included in the quotation that is from the OT Scripture. The translators of the NIV probably did this because the text the apostle quoted from did not involve the third person pronoun “he” instead we have a second person pronoun “you” since he quoted from the Septuagint of Psalm 8:7 but in our English Bible Psalm 8:6:
You made him ruler over the works of your hands; you put everything under his feet:
We are not particularly concerned that the apostle slightly changed the reading in the Septuagint although maintaining the sense of the verse since he wrote under the guidance of the Holy Spirit. That aside, you will notice that the second person pronoun “you” is used in the quotation of Psalm 8:6 you put everything under his feet. The pronoun “you” in the context of the Hebrew text refers to Yahweh, the God of Israel, as we may gather from Psalm 8:1:
O LORD, our Lord, how majestic is your name in all the earth! You have set your glory above the heavens.
Yahweh (LORD) is the personal name of the God of Israel. The word “Lord” in the phrase our Lord is translated from a Hebrew word (ʾāḏôn) that we considered in 1 Corinthians 15:25 but for completeness let me repeat what we said about the word. Our Hebrew word may mean “lord, master.” In some contexts, it is used with reference to humans as Joseph used it to describe his position in Egypt in Genesis 45:8:
“So then, it was not you who sent me here, but God. He made me father to Pharaoh, lord of his entire household and ruler of all Egypt.
But in some other contexts, it is used for Yahweh, the God of Israel, as in the instruction given to Israel regarding three occasions when the men were to appear before their God in Exodus 34:23:
Three times a year all your men are to appear before the Sovereign LORD, the God of Israel.
The phrase the Sovereign LORD, the God of Israel of the NIV is more literally from the Hebrew the Lord, Yahweh, the God of Israel. That the Hebrew word translated “Lord” refers to God or Yahweh is also evident in the interaction of Yahweh and Gideon when He commissioned him to carry out the task of leading Israel into battle against the Midianites as we read in Judges 6:14–15:
14 The LORD turned to him and said, “Go in the strength you have and save Israel out of Midian’s hand. Am I not sending you?” 15 “But Lord,” Gideon asked, “how can I save Israel? My clan is the weakest in Manasseh, and I am the least in my family.”
Yahweh spoke to Gideon, but Gideon responded by addressing Him as “Lord” from the Hebrew (ʾāḏôn). Hence, the word “Lord” in Psalm 8:1 refers to God or Yahweh so that the pronoun “you” in Psalm 8:6 refers to God or Yahweh.
We indicated that the translators of the NIV did not include the word “he” as part of the quotation of the apostle in of 1 Corinthians 15:27 he “has put everything under his feet.” Since the original text quoted by the apostle did not use the third person pronoun, it is easy to understand why the translators of the NIV did not include the pronoun “he” with the quotation marks they used. In effect, they wanted to convey that the pronoun “he” was not part of the quotation but is a part of free quotation of Apostle Paul in the sentence we are considering. It is also possible that the translators of the NIV excluded the pronoun “he” from the quotation marks to convey that “he” and “his” in the sentence he “has put everything under his feet” do not refer to the same person.
Be that as it may, there are two related problems with the sentence of 1 Corinthians 15:27 he “has put everything under his feet.” The first problem is to determine to whom the pronoun “he” refers to and the second is to identify who “his” refers to in the passage we are considering.
The first problem of determining to whom the pronoun “he” refers is complicated because of the context of 1 Corinthians 15:27 and the context of Psalm 8:6 that the apostle quoted. Consequently, there are two answers that interpreters have given in identifying the person in view in the pronoun “he.” A first answer is that the pronoun “he” is a reference to God. A justification of this interpretation is that 1 Corinthians 15:28 determines that the subject here must be God for in this verse it is God who makes all things subject to Christ. This interpretation is reflected in such English versions such as the ESV, the NRSV, and many others who simply were explicit in their translation in that they used the word God in place of the pronoun “he.” The second answer is that the pronoun “he” is a reference to Christ. The same verse 28 is appealed to by those who adopt this second interpretation. The argument is “Christ has put all things in subjection under his feet. That Paul makes it clear that God is all in all in 15:28 argues for the interpretation of Christ being the subject here. His concern is that the Corinthians do not think Christ is the supreme King.”
Which of the two interpretations did the apostle mean? Truly speaking, both answers are ultimately correct because Christ is God and He is Yahweh that is addressed in the eighth chapter of Psalm. We have in a previous study argued that Christ is Yahweh in the OT Scripture who is the God of Israel so that both interpretations are correct. However, because Christ is God it is probably better to take the pronoun “he” as a reference to God. This interpretation then leads to the interpretation that “his” in the sentence of 1 Corinthians 15:27 he “has put everything under his feet” refers to Christ.
The interpretation that the pronoun “he” refers to God and the possessive pronoun “his” refers to Christ is indeed correct can be demonstrated by examining an interpretation of a portion of the eighth chapter of Psalm by the Holy Spirit through a human author of Hebrews. The Holy Spirit guided the human author of Hebrews to interpret and apply few verses of the eighth chapter of Psalm to Jesus Christ as we read in Hebrews 2:6–9:
6 But there is a place where someone has testified: “What is man that you are mindful of him, the son of man that you care for him? 7 You made him a little lower than the angels; you crowned him with glory and honor 8 and put everything under his feet.” In putting everything under him, God left nothing that is not subject to him. Yet at present we do not see everything subject to him. 9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.
The context of Hebrews 2:6-9 is that of demonstration of the superiority of Jesus over angels and the exaltation of Jesus Christ following His resurrection. The author of Hebrews showed Jesus’ exaltation by referencing His rulership over all created beings. It is this that is expressed in the first sentence of Hebrews 2:8 and put everything under his feet that is quoted from second sentence of Psalm 8:7 in the Septuagint or verse 6 of English Bible (EB). In the original context in the eighth chapter of Psalm, this sentence is intended to elaborate the control of mankind over creation that God gave them. Interestingly, the human author of Hebrews skipped the first sentence of Psalm 8:7 of the Septuagint or verse 6 in EB, You have made him ruler over the works of your hands and quoted the last sentence as the first sentence of Hebrews 2.8.
Why did the human author skip the first sentence of Psalm 8:6 (EB) and quote the second? The answer is not given but the context of the original psalm and the context of the author’s argument help us to supply an answer to this question. In the original context, the first sentence of Psalm 8:7 in the Septuagint is clearly applied to man’s rule over lower creation. You see, after the psalmist made the assertion that man rules over God’s creation, he added that God has put everything under him. Therefore, he quickly explained what that meant by listing the things that are under man’s rule in Psalm 8:7-8:
7 all flocks and herds, and the beasts of the field, 8 the birds of the air, and the fish of the sea, all that swim the paths of the seas.
However, the human author of Hebrews is concerned with the superiority of Jesus over angels and His rule over all creation of God, human and angelic, but angels are not included in what man is to rule in Psalm 8. So, it is probably because of this that the author found it inappropriate to include the first sentence of Psalm 8:7 of the Septuagint or verse 6 in English that reads You made him ruler over the works of your hands. He wants to focus on the rule of Jesus over all creation of God including angels. For we know that angels submit to Jesus as the Holy Spirit also mentioned through the pen of the Apostle Peter in 1 Peter 3:22:
who has gone into heaven and is at God's right hand — with angels, authorities and powers in submission to him.
The point is that because the human author of Hebrews was concerned with the superiority of Jesus and His exaltation in that He rules all creation of God that he did not quote the first sentence of Psalm 8:7 (6 EB). His quotation of the second sentence you put everything under his feet is to convey that Jesus is ruler over all things as result of His exaltation.
To ensure there is no misunderstanding as to what the human author of Hebrews meant in quoting the portion of psalm that had to do with putting everything under man and applying it to Jesus, he proceeded to make a sentence that requires we recognize this interpretation and application are true. For he writes in the next sentence of Hebrews 2:8 In putting everything under him, God left nothing that is not subject to him. The word “God” does not appear in the Greek text since the sentence God left nothing that is not subject to him is more literally he left nothing that was not subject to him. The NIV and some other English versions such as the NRSV and the REB used the word “God” in their translation instead of the pronoun “he.” Such interpretation is justified by the fact that the human author of Hebrews had already indicated God was the actor of the things he started to discuss in Hebrews 2:4:
God also testified to it by signs, wonders and various miracles, and gifts of the Holy Spirit distributed according to his will.
A question of interpretation arises, which is, to whom does the pronoun him refer to in the expression of Hebrews 2:8 In putting everything under him? There are two possible answers. The first answer is that it is a reference to mankind. The justification for this position is that it is one that agrees with the fact that the psalm quoted is concerned with man’s total rulership of God’s creation. Furthermore, if “him” refers to man then it makes it easier to explain the last sentence of Hebrews 2:8 Yet at present we do not see everything subject to him, where there is a contradiction between what is stated about man’s total rule over creation and the reality that is observed today in that man does not rule everything. The Greek present tense used for the word “see” suggests that it is the observation that man makes that is in view. A second interpretation is that him is a reference to Jesus. The justification is that the author sees the decree of God of man’s rulership of creation as fulfilled only in Jesus.
Each of these interpretations is possible. However, it seems that the Holy Spirit wants us to see both interpretations in which the words of the original psalm are ascribed to man who could not fulfill them because of sin but it is in Jesus that the original words find their fulfillment. It is true that the last sentence of Hebrew 2:8 Yet at present we do not see everything subject to him makes sense if him refers to man in that there are many things in creation that man is not able to control such as weather and its aftermaths or instincts of animals or even himself. But it is equally true that not all things are subjected to Jesus at the present time. In other words, the sentence Yet at present we do not see everything subject to him is equally applicable to Jesus at the present time. We can understand this quite easily in the sense that not everyone in the world is a believer and even among believers, there are those who are still rebellious to the teaching of the word of God. But when everything becomes subjected to Jesus there will be no being that will not submit or bow down to Him. It is not only human beings that are not yet in total submission to Jesus but so are angelic beings. The angels who rebelled against God in the past are apparently still in rebellion against Jesus Christ. This we know because the Holy Spirit through Apostle Paul informs us that Jesus still has enemies that need to be subjected under His control in 1 Corinthians 15:25:
For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet.
It is true that one of the enemies in the context of 1 Corinthians 15 is death, but the enemies of Jesus include those hostile, created supernatural beings that are at the present time rule the world. These hostile beings included demons or beings that are seen as hostile to God and to believers, as mentioned in Ephesians 6:12:
For our struggle is not against flesh and blood, but against the rulers, against the authorities, against the powers of this dark world and against the spiritual forces of evil in the heavenly realms.
The rulers and authorities that are mentioned in this passage are certainly created supernatural beings that are in rebellion to God. They have not fully submitted to Jesus Christ, but a time is coming when they will be subjected to Him. However, it seems that the author of Hebrews focused mostly on human beings who are unbelievers as those who are not yet in submission to Jesus. We say this because when he wrote in Hebrews 2:8 we do not see everything subject to him the author must have had in mind that which is observable to us. Unbelievers are observable to us as those who have not submitted to Jesus but that does not mean that the human author as well would not have had in his thought created supernatural beings who at the present are still in rebellion against God. In any event, the author wants to remind us that it is in the world to come that we will see everything subjected to Jesus. Thus, from the interpretation of Psalm 8:6 (EB) by the Holy Spirit through the human author of Hebrews, it is evident that “he” in 1 Corinthians 15:27 he “has put everything under his feet” refers to God while “his” refers to Jesus Christ who is also God. However, the emphasis about Christ in the verse is still on His reign as it relates His redemptive work.
In any case, Apostle Paul wrote in 1 Corinthians 15:27 he “has put everything under his feet”. The word “put” in this verse is not the same Greek word (tithēmi) translated “put” in 1 Corinthians 15:25. Instead, the word “put” in verse 27 is translated the Greek word (hypotassō) that literally means “to order oneself under a leader” and so means “to submit” although such a meaning is not always communicative in many contexts of the Scripture. The Greek word has a range of meanings that fit a given context. The word may mean “to obey” when there is the concept of authority involved. In other words, the meaning “to obey” can be used in all passages where our Greek word appears that involve authority figure. Let me give you examples to substantiate this statement. The word is used in describing the relationship of Jesus to His parents in Luke 2:51:
Then he went down to Nazareth with them and was obedient to them. But his mother treasured all these things in her heart.
The verbal phrase was obedient to them is more literally was submitting to them. The translators of the NIV correctly captured the meaning of our Greek word as meaning “to obey” since that is the way to understand a child being submissive to the parents. The Greek word is used to describe what is expected of believers in response to the instructions of those in authority that are not in conflict with God’s word as we read in Romans 13:5:
Therefore, it is necessary to submit to the authorities, not only because of possible punishment but also because of conscience.
Here, to submit to governing authorities certainly means to obey them. The word is used to describe the relationship that should exist between the Corinthians and Stephanas, the first convert in Achaia, who is presumed to be a spiritual leader in 1 Corinthians 16:16:
to submit to such as these and to everyone who joins in the work, and labors at it.
The apostle meant that believers in Corinth should obey him and other spiritual leaders as they are those described in the clause such as these and to everyone who joins in the work. We find our Greek word used to enjoin believers to submit to God the Father in Hebrews 12:9:
Moreover, we have all had human fathers who disciplined us and we respected them for it. How much more should we submit to the Father of our spirits and live!
The requirement of submitting to the Father of our spirits is one that demands obedience to God the Father. This means that in this passage “to submit” is the same as “to obey.” The Greek word is also used in describing the relationship between slaves and their masters in 1 Peter 2:18:
Slaves, submit yourselves to your masters with all respect, not only to those who are good and considerate, but also to those who are harsh.
The examples we have cited where our Greek word is used to describe the relationship of a subject to an authority figure reveals that whenever that is the case, the meaning of our Greek word that is translated “to submit” should be understood to mean “to obey.” In our passage of 1 Corinthians 15:27, the word has the sense of “to subjugate,” that is, “to cause to be in a submissive relationship” or “to bring something under the firm control of someone.”
The meaning of the Greek word translated “put” in 1 Corinthians 15:27 as meaning “to subjugate” or “to bring something under the firm control of someone” is supported by the phrase of 1 Corinthians 15:27 under his feet. You see, the word “feet” is translated from a Greek word (podos) that literally refers to “foot,” that is, the part of the body that is used for movement as it is used to describe the body part of Lazarus that was bound at his burial, as we read in John 11:44:
The dead man came out, his hands and feet wrapped with strips of linen, and a cloth around his face. Jesus said to them, “Take off the grave clothes and let him go.”
However, the Greek word that is translated “foot” is used figuratively in different senses. The word may refer to control or authority, as the word is used in Acts 4:35:
and put it at the apostles’ feet, and it was distributed to anyone as he had need.
To say that the money from sale of property was put under the apostle’s feet does not literally mean to place the money under their feet. Instead, it means to leave the money under the authority or control of the apostles to distribute as needed. The word can be used for the whole person, as it is used in Acts 5:9:
Peter said to her, “How could you agree to test the Spirit of the Lord? Look! The feet of the men who buried your husband are at the door, and they will carry you out also.”
The phrase the feet of the men is used for the persons who buried Ananias that is why some English versions such as the CEV or the REB omitted it and so gave the translation the men who buried or those who buried. Related to this use of the word “feet” to refer to a person, is its use to refer to a person who is ready or active in an activity as it is used to describe those who preach the gospel as stated in Romans 10:15:
And how can they preach unless they are sent? As it is written, “How beautiful are the feet of those who bring good news!”
In our passage of 1 Corinthians 15:27, although the word may literally mean “foot” as body part, but the word may also mean “power” so that to put everything under Christ’s feet means that everything is subjected to Him. In effect, the phrase of 1 Corinthians 15:27 under his feet reminds us of imagery of victory where the one vanquished lie beneath the feet of the conqueror. As we have mentioned in previous study, such imagery is evident in that there are pictures of ancient kings with their feet on necks of defeated enemies.
Anyway, we are considering the sentence of 1 Corinthians 15:27 he “has put everything under his feet”. The word “everything” is translated from a Greek word (pas) that has different meanings. Often, when we encounter the word “all” in the English, we are prone to think in terms of absolute totality but that is not always the case as we demonstrate. The meaning of the word depends on whether it is used as an adjective or as a noun. The Greek word as an adjective may mean “every kind of, all sorts” in the sense of everything belonging, in kind, to the class designated by the noun as it is used to describe plague that the two witnesses in Revelation would bring to the world as God’s judgment as we read in Revelation 11:6:
These men have power to shut up the sky so that it will not rain during the time they are prophesying; and they have power to turn the waters into blood and to strike the earth with every kind of plague as often as they want.
The word may mean “each, every” as it pertains to totality with focus on its individual components as it is used by Apostle Paul in the instruction regarding avoidance of certain kind of believers as we read in 2 Thessalonians 3:6:
In the name of the Lord Jesus Christ, we command you, brothers, to keep away from every brother who is idle and does not live according to the teaching you received from us.
The word as an adjective may mean “whole” as it pertains to a high degree of completeness or wholeness so that Apostle Paul used it to describe Jesus Christ using a building metaphor in Ephesians 2:21:
In him the whole building is joined together and rises to become a holy temple in the Lord.
The Greek adjective may be used as a marker of the highest degree of something so means “all, full, greatest.” The apostle used it in this sense in his instruction in Ephesians 4:2:
Be completely humble and gentle; be patient, bearing with one another in love.
Here the apostle intended to convey that believers are to show the highest degree of humility so that the translators of the NIV rendered the Greek as Be completely humble and gentle although the Greek literally reads with all humility and gentleness. In the sentence of 1 Corinthians 15:27 he “has put everything under his feet” the word is used in the plural in the Greek text, so it means “all things” or “everything” but in absolute sense as it pertains to created beings.
The interpretation that the Greek word translated “everything” in the sentence of 1 Corinthians 15:27 he “has put everything under his feet” refers to created beings is deduced from the context of the passage in psalm that Apostle Paul quoted. We have already indicated that the Holy Spirit through the psalmist defined what is meant by the word “everything” used in Psalm 8:6:
You made him ruler over the works of your hands; you put everything under his feet:
As we stated previously, “everything” in Psalm 8:6 refers to lower creatures of God that humans were to rule as in the passage we cited previously, that is, Psalm 8:7-8:
7 all flocks and herds, and the beasts of the field, 8 the birds of the air, and the fish of the sea, all that swim the paths of the seas.
We argued from the argument of the human author of Hebrews that the Jesus is the human that fulfilled the rule over creation that humans could not. So, it is fitting to interpret that “everything” that is subjected under Christ refers to all created beings – human or supernatural.
Be that as it may, the Holy Spirit through Apostle Paul made sure we understand that the word “everything” refers to created beings that the apostle wrote in the second clause of 1 Corinthians 15:27 Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself.
The beginning clause Now when it says presents interpretation problems. The first is how to relate it to the preceding clause of 1 Corinthians 15:27 For he “has put everything under his feet.” This is because of the word “now” used in the NIV is translated from a Greek particle (de) that may be used to connect one clause to another, either to express contrast or simple continuation but in certain occurrences the marker may be left untranslated as adopted here by some English versions, such as, the CEB and the CEV that did not translate our Greek particle in the clause we are considering. Although it is often translated “but” in the English when there is a perceived contrast between two clauses, but it has other meanings such as “now,” “then,” “and,” “so” when it is used to link segments of a narrative. It can also be used to indicate transition to something new. In our verse, the Greek particle is subject to two possible interpretations. It can be used to state a contrast with the translation “but.” This interpretation implies that the apostle meant to say that what he wrote in our clause contrasts what he stated previously regarding putting everything under Christ. Another interpretation is that it is used to indicate continuation or for introducing a new sentence in which case it may be translated “now” as in the NIV and the ISV or left untranslated as in the English versions we have already cited or even be translated “but.” While both interpretations make sense, it is probably the second interpretation the apostle meant because he was continuing the concept of putting everything under Christ but in such a way that he wants to convey a contrast between what he says in the clause we are considering and what preceded it. By the way the TEV and the NLT probably adopted this usage that indicates continuity since they used the meaning “of course,” meaning “admittedly” or “as might be expected” to translate our Greek particle. We say this because the meaning “admittedly” or “as might be expected” makes sense if the clause we are considering is continuing with what was stated in the preceding clause of verse 27.
The Greek particle translated “now” in the NIV is followed in our English versions with the word “when” that is translated from a Greek particle (hotan) that denotes time. If the point of time is roughly to or overlaps with another point of time it may be translated “when” as it is used to describe what would happen to believers when Christ returns according to Colossians 3:4:
When Christ, who is your life, appears, then you also will appear with him in glory.
When time involved is linked to a specific event, it could mean “as soon as” as in the use of the word by Apostle Paul to describe when Titus should come to him based on the event of the arrival of one of the members of his team as we read in Titus 3:12:
As soon as I send Artemas or Tychicus to you, do your best to come to me at Nicopolis, because I have decided to winter there.
The word may mean “whenever” as it is used in James to describe the time believers should rejoice instead of being depressed as we read in James 1:2:
Consider it pure joy, my brothers, whenever you face trials of many kinds.
The word may mean “while” in the sense of “in spite of the fact that” or “although” as it is used to describe the sudden destruction of people in the day of the Lord in 1 Thessalonians 5:3:
While people are saying, “Peace and safety,” destruction will come on them suddenly, as labor pains on a pregnant woman, and they will not escape.
The word may mean “after” as that is the sense the word is used by Apostle Paul in his instruction to the Colossians regarding the circulation of his epistle to them to the church in Laodicea as stated in Colossians 4:16:
After this letter has been read to you, see that it is also read in the church of the Laodiceans and that you in turn read the letter from Laodicea.
In our passage of 1 Corinthians 15:27, the word is not used in the sense of time but in the sense of “although” or “while” in the sense of “in spite of the fact that.” Thus, the clause of the NIV Now when it says may be translated Now while it says to indicate that apostle was not concerned with time as he was in connecting the clause Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him to the first clause For he “has put everything under his feet” of the verse.
In any case, the second problem of the clause of 1 Corinthians 15:27 Now when it says is with the sentence it says. The problem is whether the Greek verb used should be translated “it says” as in the NIV and majority of our English versions or “he says” as in the NASB, the ISV, the NKJV and the WEB (World English Bible). Of course, when the sentence is properly understood, there is really no problem with either translation since ultimately both say essentially the same thing as we will demonstrate later.
The word “says” is translated from a Greek word (legō) that may mean to express oneself orally or in written form and so may mean “to tell, say” as Apostle Paul used it in indicating his truthfulness regarding his commission as an apostle to preach the gospel of Jesus Christ, as recorded in 1 Timothy 2:7:
And for this purpose I was appointed a herald and an apostle—I am telling the truth, I am not lying—and a teacher of the true faith to the Gentiles.
The word may mean to identify in a specific manner hence may mean “to call, to name” as the word is used in reporting what Peter learned in his vision in which the Lord prepared him to go and preach the gospel to Cornelius and others as narrated in Acts 10:28:
He said to them: “You are well aware that it is against our law for a Jew to associate with a Gentile or visit him. But God has shown me that I should not call any man impure or unclean.
The word may mean “to insist” as it is used in the response of the man born blind that the Lord Jesus healed as stated in John 9:9:
Some claimed that he was. Others said, “No, he only looks like him.” But he himself insisted, “I am the man.”
The word may mean “to declare” as it is used in Jesus’ interaction with the Samaritan woman according to John 4:21:
Jesus declared, “Believe me, woman, a time is coming when you will worship the Father neither on this mountain nor in Jerusalem.
The word may mean “to preach” as it is used in Jesus’ warning regarding the Pharisees and the teachers of the law as those who are hypocritical in that they teach one thing and do another and so should not be imitated as stated in Matthew 23:3:
So you must obey them and do everything they tell you. But do not do what they do, for they do not practice what they preach.
When the word is used in translation of a foreign word, it may mean “means” as it is used to identify the location of the crucifixion of the Lord Jesus in Matthew 27:33:
They came to a place called Golgotha (which means The Place of the Skull).
In our passage of 1 Corinthians 15:27, the word means “to say” in the sense of “to contain a certain wording.” The implication is that our word is used to quote OT Scripture.
It should not be surprising to you that we said that our word is used to quote OT Scripture. This is because several NT writers used Greek word translated “to say” to quote OT Scripture. Matthew and other apostles used the word several times to quote the OT Scripture. For example, he used our Greek word in his quotation recorded in Matthew 5:38:
“You have heard that it was said, ‘Eye for eye, and tooth for tooth.’
Matthew, of course, quoted from Leviticus 24:20. Apostle Peter used our Greek word in his quotation from OT Scripture as stated in Acts 3:22:
For Moses said, ‘The Lord your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among your own people; you must listen to everything he tells you.
Peter quoted from Deuteronomy 18:15ff. Apostle Paul used our Greek word in quoting from OT Scripture according to Romans 4:18:
Against all hope, Abraham in hope believed and so became the father of many nations, just as it had been said to him, “So shall your offspring be.”
Here Apostle Paul quoted from Genesis 15:5. Thus, it should not be surprising that we maintain that the Greek word translated “says” in our passage of 1 Corinthians 15:27 is one that may be used for quotation. This being the case, the translation of the NIV it says is proper where “it” refers to Scripture the apostle quoted in the first clause of 1 Corinthians 15:27. Therefore, it is to reflect this interpretation that the translators of the CEV used the word “scripture” in place of the pronoun “it” used in majority of our English versions.
Our Scripture is from God. Therefore, it is equally valid to use the word “he” either as a reference to Christ or God. As we argued in the quotation in the first clause of 1 Corinthians 15:27, it is better to take “he” as a reference to God in the translation of the Greek verb rendered “it says” in the NIV. It is probably for this reason that the GW version translated our Greek sentence with the word “God” in place of the pronoun “it” used in majority of our English versions. As we stated previously, it does not matter whether the Greek sentence that we are considering is translated “it says” or “he says,” the apostle would be saying that God said what is quoted from the OT Scripture. You see, sometimes the word “God” is used in place of the word “Scripture.” Take for example, Apostle Paul quoted from the Scripture but rather than say the Scripture, he used “God” as speaking as we read in 2 Corinthians 6:16:
What agreement is there between the temple of God and idols? For we are the temple of the living God. As God has said: “I will live with them and walk among them, and I will be their God, and they will be my people.”
The apostle quoted freely from Leviticus 26:12:
I will walk among you and be your God, and you will be my people.
The human author of Hebrews also used the word “God” in place of what is stated in a specific Scripture as we read in Hebrews 4:3:
Now we who have believed enter that rest, just as God has said, “So I declared on oath in my anger, ‘They shall never enter my rest.’” And yet his work has been finished since the creation of the world.
The human author of Hebrews quoted from Psalm 95:11:
So I declared on oath in my anger, “They shall never enter my rest.”
Based on these two examples, one gets the idea that when the OT Scripture is quoted, it could be understood as quoting God since He is the source of the Scripture. Therefore, it does not matter in 1 Corinthians 15:27 whether the Greek is translated “it says” referring to the Scripture or “he says,” that is referring to God. This being the case, the apostle simply cited the Scripture he previously quoted when he wrote in 1 Corinthians 15:27 Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself. Anyhow, our concern is with the interpretation of what the apostle said in this clause, and it is with this that we will begin our next study. However, let me end by reminding you of the message of this passage which is Christ’s resurrection ensures orderly future resurrection and successful conclusion of God’s plan in relationship to creation.
08/25/23