Lessons #573 and 574
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+ 1. It is best to use this note after you have listened to the lessons because there are +
+ comments given in the actual delivery not in the note. +
+ 2. The Bible abbreviations are as follows: CEV =Contemporary English version, +
+ CEB = Common English Bible, ESV= English Standard Version, +
+ GW = God’s Word Translation, ISV = International Standard Version, +
+ NAB=New American Bible, NASB= New American Standard Bible, +
+ NEB= New English Bible, NET = New English Translation, +
+ NLT = New Living Translations NJB = New Jerusalem Bible, +
+ NJV = New Jewish Bible, TEV = Today’s English Version. +
+AMP = Amplified Bible, UBS = United Bible Society +
+ 3. Notes have not been edited for grammatical errors. +
+ 4. Text is based on 1984 edition of the NIV +
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Superiority of the last Adam (1 Cor 15:45-50)
45 So it is written: “The first man Adam became a living being”; the last Adam, a life-giving spirit. 46 The spiritual did not come first, but the natural, and after that the spiritual. 47 The first man was of the dust of the earth, the second man from heaven. 48 As was the earthly man, so are those who are of the earth; and as is the man from heaven, so also are those who are of heaven. 49 And just as we have borne the likeness of the earthly man, so shall we bear the likeness of the man from heaven. 50 I declare to you, brothers, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God, nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable.
The message of this section (1 Corinthians 15:45-50) we are considering that we described as the fourth paragraph of the major section of 1 Corinthians 15:35-50 that is concerned with the nature of resurrection body is that The last Adam, the God man, Jesus Christ, is eminently superior to the first man, Adam. We asserted that the superiority of the last Adam is presented in three relationships that enable us to understand this subject of the superiority of the last Adam over the first man. Thus far, we have considered the first two relationships. The first relationship concerns life as the apostle discoursed in verses 45 and 46. The second concerns the relationship to the origins of the first and last Adam in verse 47. In our last study, we started the consideration of the third relationship that is concerned with resultant associations with the first and last Adam described in verses 48 to 49. We began to consider the result of association with the first Adam that we indicated is that of having one’s origin from this planet earth. Furthermore, such association certainly implies all those associated with first Adam possess the body that is capable of decay. So, we proceed to consider the result of association with the last Adam, being aware that the association as it relates to the last Adam in verse 48 is different from that of association with the first Adam as we will indicate shortly.
The result of being associated with the last Adam in His heavenly origin is having a spiritual body. It is this result that is given in the last clause of 1 Corinthians 15:48 and as is the man from heaven, so also are those who are of heaven. Literally, the Greek reads and like the heavenly man, so also the heavenly ones. The interpretation of what Apostle Paul meant hinges on two phrases in the literal translation. The first is the literal phrase heavenly man or in the NIV the man from heaven. The second is the literal phrase the heavenly ones or in the NIV those who are of heaven.
We begin with the first literal phrase heavenly man or in the NIV the man from heaven. The expression “man from heaven” is translated from a Greek word (epouranios) that in classical Greek appears in the plural, used for the gods who dwell in heaven and come from it. In Greek NT, the word pertains to “being associated with a locale for transcendent things and beings,” hence means “heavenly” as it is used to describe heavenly Jerusalem in Hebrews 12:22:
But you have come to Mount Zion, to the heavenly Jerusalem, the city of the living God. You have come to thousands upon thousands of angels in joyful assembly.
It is with the phrase “heavenly realms” that the word is used to describe where Jesus ascended after His resurrection as we read in Ephesians 1:20:
which he exerted in Christ when he raised him from the dead and seated him at his right hand in the heavenly realms.
In our passage of 1 Corinthians 15:48, the word is used with the meaning “heavenly person,” that is, a person whose place of origin (or home) is heaven.”
The phrase the man from heaven of the NIV of 1 Corinthians 15:48 refers to Jesus Christ as demanded by the context. The problem is whether it refers to Jesus Christ in His preexistence as God or it refers to Him after His resurrection. Although some interpret the phrase to refer to Jesus Christ after His resurrection, but it is more likely that Apostle Paul had in mind Jesus Christ in His preexistence as God who then came down from heaven taking on human body. This interpretation is supported by the fact that the Greek word translated “the man from heaven” is used in classical Greek to refer to the “gods” in their dwelling place called heaven who also come from it into the world. Furthermore, there is no record of Jesus Christ being described as being from heaven after His resurrection. Instead, Jesus Christ while on this planet referred to Himself as the One from heaven as, for example, in John 3:31:
“The one who comes from above is above all; the one who is from the earth belongs to the earth, and speaks as one from the earth. The one who comes from heaven is above all.
Hence, it better to understand the phrase the man from heaven of the NIV of 1 Corinthians 15:48 as a reference to Jesus Christ in His preexistence. This leads us to consider the second phrase.
The second phrase that concerns us is the literal phrase the heavenly ones or in the NIV those who are of heaven. The question is to understand those referenced in the phrase. Again, there are those who understand the phrase as a reference to believers who are now in heaven. There is no doubt that there are believers in heaven at this moment since our Scripture speaks of God’s family in heaven distinct from those on earth in Ephesians 3:15:
from whom his whole family in heaven and on earth derives its name.
However, the clause those who are of heaven or literally the heavenly ones refer to heavenly beings who originated from heaven. This is because the literal phrase “heavenly ones” is translated from the plural of the Greek word (epouranios) we indicated in its use in the first phrase the man from heaven we considered means “heavenly person,” that is, “a person whose place of origin (or home) is heaven.” This time the Greek word is used in the plural. As we indicated previously, the plural form is used in the classical Greek for the gods. Hence, the apostle would have used it here as a reference to the gods that exist in heaven that he referenced in the eighth chapter of 1 Corinthians. The point is that the clause of the NIV of 1 Corinthians 15:48 those who are of heaven refers to the supreme being called God and the created supernatural beings in heaven known as gods. We exclude believers in heaven at the present because their origin was the earth before they died and went to be in the presence of God with some kind of spiritual body.
The interpretations we have given of the pertinent phrases or clause in the NIV of the last half of 1 Corinthians 15:48 enable us to interpret what the apostle meant when he wrote the clause and as is the man from heaven, so also are those who are of heaven. The clause as is the man from heaven refers to the spiritual body of Jesus Christ as He existed in heaven before His incarnation. This is in keeping with the assertion of the apostle that there is a spiritual body. Consequently, the clause so also are those who are of heaven means that those in heaven have the same spiritual body as Jesus Christ prior to incarnation. There is no doubt that there must be a distinction between the spiritual body of the supreme being called God and that of the gods, created divine beings, since the apostle had already indicated that even stars differ in their bodies. We speculate that there is a difference in the spiritual body of God and the created supernatural beings called gods because there must be a special glory associated with the spiritual body of the supreme God, the creator. It is this special glory that Jesus Christ requested of God the Father to restore to Him in His priestly prayer as recorded in John 17:5:
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.
The glory Jesus Christ had prior to the incarnation would most likely include the special radiance associated with the spiritual body of the persons of the Godhead that would distinguish them from the other created supernatural beings or gods in heaven. It is because of this we contend that it is the general spiritual body of Christ prior to incarnation of the type that the created, supernatural beings also have is meant in the clause so also are those who are of heaven. For sure, the other members of the Godhead have the same spiritual body of Christ that includes special radiance that only the supreme being, the creator, we call God possesses. Anyway, Jesus Christ as the last Adam is superior to the first Adam because of the spiritual body associated with heaven He had prior to incarnation. Of course, because of the incarnation and exaltation Jesus of Christ, no doubt, has a distinction to His spiritual body in heaven at the present that would distinguish Him from the other two members of the Godhead. It is this distinction in spiritual body that He would share with those He had redeemed by His death on the cross.
In any case, we have the assurance that those who are in Christ would share in His distinctive spiritual body. It is this that is conveyed in verse 49. Sure, the apostle begins by indicating that as believers we have the nature and the bodily form of the first Adam. It is this that he wrote in the clause of 1 Corinthians 15:49 And just as we have borne the likeness of the earthly man.
This first clause of 1 Corinthians 15:49 And just as we have borne the likeness of the earthly man is concerned with setting up a form of similarity because of the phrase just as is translated from a Greek word (kathōs) that may be used “as a marker of cause or reason, often with the implication of some implied comparison,” hence the meaning “in as much as, because.” The word may also mean “as” to describe degree or extent of something. In our passage of 1 Corinthians 15:49, it is used as “a marker of similarity in states” in which case it means “just as.”
The setting up of a form of similarity is given in the sentence we have borne the likeness of the earthly man. The expression “have borne” is translated from a Greek word (phoreō) that may mean “to bear or carry” as it is used to describe the sword as the instrument the government has regularly in administration of justice in Romans 13:4:
For he is God’s servant to do you good. But if you do wrong, be afraid, for he does not bear the sword for nothing. He is God’s servant, an agent of wrath to bring punishment on the wrongdoer.
The word may mean “to wear” of clothing as it is used to denounce the favoritism shown to the rich because of his fine clothing as stated in James 2:3:
If you show special attention to the man wearing fine clothes and say, “Here’s a good seat for you,” but say to the poor man, “You stand there” or “Sit on the floor by my feet,"
In our passage of 1 Corinthians 15:49, the word means “to bear” in the sense of “to identify habitually with someone.” The Greek indicates that the apostle states something that is true of all humans beginning with the birth of Cain as the first human borne with a body similar to that of Adam and Eve. Although Cain was certainly like Adam at birth, but it was after the birth of Seth that we read of someone in the likeness or image of Adam in Genesis 5:3:
When Adam had lived 130 years, he had a son in his own likeness, in his own image; and he named him Seth.
This aside, the apostle wrote in 1 Corinthians 15:49 we have borne the likeness of the earthly man.
The thing borne is described with the phrase of 1 Corinthians 15:49 the likeness of the earthly man. The word “likeness” is translated from a Greek word (eikōn) that refers to an object shaped to resemble the form or appearance of something and so means “likeness, portrait” as it is used in question of Jesus Christ to those who wanted to entrap Him regarding payment of taxes, so He wanted to know whose portrait and inscription were on the coin as we read in Luke 20:24:
“Show me a denarius. Whose portrait and inscription are on it?”
The word may mean that which represents something else in terms of basic form and features, hence means “likeness, form, appearance” as it is used in describing transforming of believers to conform to the form of Jesus Christ in 2 Corinthians 3:18:
And we, who with unveiled faces all reflect the Lord’s glory, are being transformed into his likeness with ever-increasing glory, which comes from the Lord, who is the Spirit.
The word may mean that which has the same form as something else, that is, “living image” as it is used to describe Jesus Christ in relation to God in Colossians 1:15:
He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
Let me comment on this verse in Colossians as understanding the use of “image” here would help us to understand what is meant in our passage of study. Apostle Paul described the Lord Jesus, the Son of God as the image of the invisible God, but what does this mean? To answer this question, we should first remember that this phrase was not written with a modern person’s background. For in terms of the modern person, the expression in and of itself is illogical. By this, we mean that it does not make sense to have an image of something that is invisible since the modern person thinks of image mostly in artistic form or in terms of visual or mental representation. So, by the modern understanding there is no way we can comprehend the image of something invisible. Again, logically, how can a person have an image of that which is invisible? Or how can you have a photograph of something that is invisible? Reflect on this observation and you will agree that the phrase should not be understood with modern understanding of image. However, to the ancient, image is not limited to that which appeals to human’s senses but includes the action coming out or springing forth from a source, of a revelation of the being with a substantial participation in the object. Also, it is within modern understanding to view image as a weakening or a feeble copy of something when perhaps the ancient would see image as an illumination of the inner core or essence of an object. The point is that even in the case of photograph we see it as a representation of the person that would help to identify the individual, but we do not associate any life to a photograph. But when we think of “image” as used in our text, we should think also in terms of life and not mere representation. The point we seek to stress is that in Colossians 1:15, we should not understand image in the physical or material sense. All the same, to say that Jesus Christ is the image of the invisible God is to be understood to be saying that Jesus Christ is the very God revealed to the extent that human beings can understand and perceive. Or we may put it in another way: that Christ is a perfect revelation of the being and nature of God. In effect, the apostle is saying that God as a divine being is invisible but has chosen to make Himself known to humans through the person of Jesus Christ so that Christ is everything God is. Therefore, in Christ, humans can see what God is like, His very nature and being. Anyway, in our passage of 1 Corinthians 15:49, the Greek word is used with the meaning “living image” or “likeness,” that is, similarity in appearance or form between persons. Thus, we are similar in appearance or form with the earthly man, that is, the first Adam.
In what way are we similar in appearance or form with the first Adam? It is first and foremost that we have a body similar to his. Thus, we have a human body in contrast to that of animals or spiritual beings. Adam’s body was subject to death and decay so are our bodies. We are also similar to the first Adam in our moral character. The first Adam being the head of humanity was the one through whom sin came into the world according to Romans 5:12:
Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned—
So, we are like the first Adam in that we are sinners. Our association with him leads to that which is unpleasant in that we are sinners whose bodies are subject to death, but the Holy Spirit indicates through Apostle Paul that there is something pleasant with our association with the last Adam.
Our association with the last Adam, the Lord Jesus Christ, results in that which is wonderful that we cannot at the moment grasp. It is this result of association with Jesus Christ that is given in the last clause of 1 Corinthians 15:49 so shall we bear the likeness of the man from heaven. The word “so” is added to help the reader understand the comparison made regarding results of association with the first Adam and the last Adam since the Greek literally reads we will bear also the likeness of the heavenly. By the way, there is a manuscript problem here. A few Greek manuscripts have the reading that is translated as “we will bear” as in majority of our English versions while majority of older Greek manuscripts have the reading “let us bear” as reflected in the NET. Because the apostle is presenting a teaching regarding the resurrection body and not requiring any action on the part of the Corinthians at this point in the section that we have been considering, it makes better sense to use the translation we have in majority of English versions, that is, so shall we bear the likeness of the man from heaven. This aside, the literal phrase the heavenly, of course, refers to Jesus Christ that is described as the last Adam or the man from heaven since the word “heavenly” is translated from the Greek word (epouranios) that was used in verse 48 where we indicated that it is used with the meaning “heavenly person,” that is, “a person whose place of origin (or home) is heaven.”
What does the apostle mean when he conveyed that we, believers, will bear the likeness of the man from heaven? Before we answer this question, we should note that the passage we are studying is not the only place the apostle expressed the same concept. He did that in his epistle to the Romans, specifically, in Romans 8:29:
For those God foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the likeness of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brothers.
The word “predestined” is here better understood as “decided upon beforehand” since the word “predestined” is translated from a Greek word (proorizō) that means “to decide upon beforehand” or “to predetermine” so God had already decided upon beforehand that the elect would be conformed to the likeness of His son.
Be that as it may, the question we are concerned is, what does the apostle mean by asserting that believers will bear the likeness of the man from heaven, that is, Jesus Christ? We prefix the answer we give by stating that what this means is not fully revealed to us as the Holy Spirit conveyed through Apostle John in 1 John 3:2:
Dear friends, now we are children of God, and what we will be has not yet been made known. But we know that when he appears, we shall be like him, for we shall see him as he is.
This notwithstanding, we are certain that one of the things the Holy Spirit means when Apostle Paul asserts that we will bear the likeness of the man from heaven, Jesus Christ, is that we will have a resurrection body like His. This confidence or assurance is given to us by the Holy Spirit through Apostle Paul in what he penned down in Philippians 3:21:
who, by the power that enables him to bring everything under his control, will transform our lowly bodies so that they will be like his glorious body.
The resurrection body we will have would be similar in appearance to the final form of His resurrection body. We say this because, it appears that the resurrection body of Jesus Christ underwent a further transformation as He returned to heaven. We make this deduction based on the vision of Apostle John on the Island of Patmos. John fainted at the sight of Jesus Christ whom he has known for at least three years and saw on at least two occasions after His resurrection. Why then did he not recognize Jesus Christ? We may ask. Is it not because Christ has undergone further transformation that John could not recognize Him? His description of the Savior is different from what John remembered of Him. He gives us a description of a part of the body of Christ in Revelation 1:14:
His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
If we are correct in what we deduced, then it is this further transformation that leads me to conclude that we really do not know what our final form will be. God has not seen fit to reveal that to us. But all we can say is that in terms of the final appearance, our bodies will look like the one Jesus has in heaven. The implication is that we will have a body that will no longer be subject to decay. In addition, we will exhibit some of the characteristics associated with the deity of Christ as implied in 2 Peter 1:4:
Through these he has given us his very great and precious promises, so that through them you may participate in the divine nature and escape the corruption in the world caused by evil desires.
To participate in divine nature does not mean that we will be God or have the substance that makes God who He is. Instead, to participate in divine nature means to exhibit divine character that certainly should begin on this planet and be more pronounced in the eternal state where there would be no temptation to sin. In any event, our association with the man from heaven, that is, the Lord Jesus Christ assures us that we will be like Him in that we will have a body that is no longer subject to death and decay, and we will exhibit some of the characteristics of God when we are in heaven. In effect, the apostle asserts that association with the last Adam, that is, Jesus Christ, is superior to the association with the first Adam because of immortal body and moral character those who are associated with the last Adam will receive.
In any case, Apostle Paul after communicating in verses 45 to 49 the superiority of the last Adam, Jesus Christ, over the first Adam, ends what we described as the fourth paragraph of the major section of the section of 1 Corinthians 15:35-50 that is concerned with the nature of resurrection body with an important assertion. This assertion given in verse 50 is that there is no continuity of the earthly body in heaven.
Verse 50 may appear to be unconnected with everything the apostle had discoursed in verses 35 to 49 but that is not so. The apostle conveyed there is a connection between verse 50 and the preceding verses because the Greek has a Greek particle (de), not translated in the NIV, that may be used to connect one clause to another, either to express contrast or simple continuation but in certain occurrences the marker may be left untranslated. Although it is often translated “but” in the English when there is a perceived contrast between two clauses, but it has other meanings such as “now,” “then,” “and,” “so” when it is used to link segments of a narrative. It can also be used to indicate transition to something new or to resume a discourse after an interruption. In 1 Corinthians 15:50, it may be interpreted in two ways. It may be taken as a marker of continuity with what has been said previously in which case it may be translated “now” as in the NASB or left untranslated as done in the NIV or the NCV. Or the Greek particle may be interpreted as a marker of explanation as implied in the TEV although it was not explicitly stated. It is probably the case that the apostle used it to indicate there is a connection between what he had discoursed concerning resurrection body in the preceding verses and what he wrote in verse 50 that is in a sense a concluding explanation of what he discoursed.
Anyway, the apostle conveyed that he was emphatic in his assertion or explanation since he wrote I declare to you, brothers. Literally, the Greek reads Now this I say, brothers. There are two words used in the Greek that enable us to state that the apostle was emphatic in the assertion or explanation that follows. The first word that is not translated in the NIV but appears in the Greek is the word “this” in the literal translation that is translated from a Greek demonstrative pronoun (houtos) that may mean “this” that is used in different ways. It could be used to draw attention to something here and now. It may be used to reference something that has immediately preceded and so may be translated “this one.” It may be used to introduce what follows sometimes with emphasis. It is in this sense that the word is used in 1 Corinthians 15:50. The second word that indicates that what the apostle asserted was emphatic and important is the word “brothers.” This is because the apostle used the word “brothers” several times in this first epistle to Corinthians when he wants to make an appeal about something that he considered quite important. Thus, he used it when he appealed for the Corinthians to avoid partisanship as stated 1 Corinthians 1:10:
I appeal to you, brothers, in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that all of you agree with one another so that there may be no divisions among you and that you may be perfectly united in mind and thought.
The apostle used the word “brothers” to convey emphatically to the Corinthians what he thought of both their spiritual status and condition in 1 Corinthians 3:1:
Brothers, I could not address you as spiritual but as worldly—mere infants in Christ.
When the apostle wanted to introduce the important subject of spiritual gifts, he used the word “brothers” not only to get the attention of the Corinthians but also to indicate that what he was about to discourse is important as we read in 1 Corinthians 12:1:
Now about spiritual gifts, brothers, I do not want you to be ignorant.
Apostle Paul used the word “brothers” when he wanted to present in an emphatic fashion the gospel message he preached as we read in 1 Corinthians 15:1:
Now, brothers, I want to remind you of the gospel I preached to you, which you received and on which you have taken your stand.
These examples should convince you that when the apostle used the word “brothers” in this epistle to the Corinthians, it is usually because he wants to address an important matter in an emphatic manner. This being the case we contend that when the apostle used the word in 1 Corinthians 15:50, he meant not only that he was about to state an important truth, but he did so emphatically.
By the way, the word “brothers” is translated from a Greek word (adelphos) that has several meanings in the Greek that we considered in 1 Corinthians 15:6. For example, the word may mean brother in the sense of a male person from the same mother as the referenced person. The word in the plural form may mean “brothers and sisters in Christ.” It is in this sense that the word is used in 1 Corinthians 15:50. The point is that when Apostle Paul used the word brothers in 1 Corinthians 15:50, he addressed all believers in Corinth regardless of their gender. Thus, what the apostle states in what follow are directed to believers in Christ regardless of their geographical location or even the time in which they live on this planet. The assertion or explanation that follows then is not only for the Corinthian church but for the universal church of Christ on this planet.
We use the word “assertion” or “explanation” because of the sentence of 1 Corinthians 15:50 I declare to you, brothers. The word “declare” of the NIV is translated from a Greek word (phēmi) that is concerned with stating something either orally or in writing so it may mean “to say” as it is used in Apostle Paul’s quotation from the OT cited in 1 Corinthians 6:16:
Do you not know that he who unites himself with a prostitute is one with her in body? For it is said, “The two will become one flesh.”
The word may mean “to claim, affirm” as it is used by Apostle Paul in stating what others charge him of as we read in Romans 3:8:
Why not say—as we are being slanderously reported as saying and as some claim that we say—“Let us do evil that good may result”? Their condemnation is deserved.
The word may mean “to declare” as it is used to report what Peter said to the Lord Jesus of not going to deny Him as we read in Mark 14:29:
Peter declared, “Even if all fall away, I will not.”
The word may mean to say something that provides a fuller explanation of a statement, hence means “to mean, imply” as the word is used by Apostle Paul in explaining what he had said about idols and sacrifice in 1 Corinthians 10:19:
Do I mean then that a sacrifice offered to an idol is anything, or that an idol is anything?
In our passage of 1 Corinthians 15:50, some take the meaning to be “to declare” but it is probably that the apostle used it with the meaning of “to mean,” that is, “to intend to express or convey” something that explains fully what the apostle had said previously about earthly body in relationship to resurrection.
The assertion or explanation of the apostle regarding our present body in relation to resurrection is described first in the next clause of 1 Corinthians 15:50 that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God.
The Greek phrase translated into the English as flesh and blood is one that is used five times in the Greek NT. The phrase flesh and blood is used as a reference to human or man. It is in this sense that the Lord Jesus used it after Peter’s great confession about His identity in that He indicated it was not a human being that revealed the information that allowed Peter to correctly identify Jesus as the Christ of God as recorded in Matthew 16:17:
Jesus replied, "Blessed are you, Simon son of Jonah, for this was not revealed to you by man, but by my Father in heaven.
The translators of the NIV were interpretive in their translation, although correctly, for the phrase by man is literally from the Greek by flesh and blood. It is in the sense of “human” or “man” that Apostle Paul used it to deny receiving the gospel he preached from any human as recorded in Galatians 1:16:
to reveal his Son in me so that I might preach him among the Gentiles, I did not consult any man.
The phrase any man is literally with flesh and blood. In his epistle to the Ephesians, the apostle used the same phrase although in reverse order of “blood and flesh” in the Greek text to represent that which is material in contrast to that which is spiritual in Ephesians 6:12:
For our struggle is not against flesh and blood, but against the rulers, against the authorities, against the powers of this dark world and against the spiritual forces of evil in the heavenly realms.
The human author of Hebrews used the phrase in reverse order, that is, “blood and flesh” in the sense of being human which will include the whole physical and sensuous nature of mankind. In other words, the author of Hebrews used it to describe humans in contrast to purely spiritual beings like the angels who are without physical bodies in Hebrews 2:14:
Since the children have flesh and blood, he too shared in their humanity so that by his death he might destroy him who holds the power of death—that is, the devil—
In our passage of 1 Corinthians 15:50, the Apostle Paul used the phrase to describe the bodily existence of humans in this world in contrast to the world to come. It is this bodily nature or existence of humans that apostle had in mind in the sentence of 1 Corinthians 15:50 flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God.
The word “inherit” is translated from a Greek word (klēronomeō) that means “to receive a possession or benefit as a gift from someone who has died,” with, of course, the implication that one did not work for it and means “to inherit, to be an inheritor” as the word is used by Apostle Paul in quoting what Sarah said regarding Ishmael as recorded in Galatians 4:30:
But what does the Scripture say? “Get rid of the slave woman and her son, for the slave woman’s son will never share in the inheritance with the free woman’s son.”
The clause for the slave woman’s son will never share in the inheritance with the free woman’s son is literally for the son of the female slave will never inherit with the son” of the free woman. Another meaning of the Greek word is “to acquire, obtain, come into possession of” as the word is used by the human author of Hebrews to encourage believers to imitate the faithful of God who lived in the past, as stated in Hebrews 6:12:
We do not want you to become lazy, but to imitate those who through faith and patience inherit what has been promised.
It is in the sense of to obtain eternal salvation that the word is used to describe inheriting eternal life in Matthew 19:29:
And everyone who has left houses or brothers or sisters or father or mother or children or fields for my sake will receive a hundred times as much and will inherit eternal life.
It is in the meaning of “to obtain” that the Greek word is used in our passage of 1 Corinthians 15:50. However, we should understand that the idea here is that of receiving something since the word “inherit” is, as experts tell us, a typical Semitic figure of speech for the way in which one freely receives something from God. The thing to be received is described as the kingdom of God.
The word “kingdom” is translated from a Greek word (basileia) with two categories of meanings. It refers to the act of ruling and so means “kingship, royal power, royal rule.” This meaning is reflected in the Parable of Ten Minas where a prince went to a distant country to receive royal power or kingship in Luke 19:12:
He said: “A man of noble birth went to a distant country to have himself appointed king and then to return.
The verbal phrase to have himself appointed king is more literally to receive for himself a kingdom which is an idiom that means to become a king; hence, the sense is that of receiving royal power or royal rule. Another meaning of the Greek word refers to the territory ruled by a king, hence means “kingdom.” This meaning is reflected in Jesus’ predictions of events leading to the end of time in Luke 21:10:
Then he said to them: “Nation will rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom.
This second meaning of a territory does not apply in the phrase kingdom of God when used of God; instead, it is the first meaning of royal rule or royal power that is applicable. In our passage of 1 Corinthians 15:50, the word has the sense of “royal reign.” Thus, when the apostle states flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God he meant that the body associated with this planet will not participate in the royal reign of God in eternity.
The apostle continued to convey that there would be no continuity between the present earthly body and the spiritual or resurrection body in that he wrote in the clause of 1 Corinthians 15:50 nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable. This clause is another way of saying what the apostle said in the preceding clause. This we say because of the word “nor” is translated from a Greek particle (oude) that may mean “and not, nor” to join sentences or clauses to others of the same kind. The particle could also mean “or” in the sense of being used to introduce a synonym or explanation of a preceding word or phrase. This usage is found several times in Apostle Paul’s epistle. For example, he used it in his encouragement to the Philippians to ensure his ministry among them is not in vain as we read in Philippians 2:16:
as you hold out the word of life—in order that I may boast on the day of Christ that I did not run or labor for nothing.
It is this usage of introducing a synonym or explanation that the apostle used the particle in the clause of 1 Corinthians 15:50 nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable. This aside, the words the apostle used in the clause nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable. support that he was saying essentially the same thing he said in the preceding clause.
The word “perishable” is translated from the Greek word (phthora) that refers to break down of organic matter and so means “decay, deterioration” as it is used by the apostle to describe the liberation of creation in Romans 8:21:
that the creation itself will be liberated from its bondage to decay and brought into the glorious freedom of the children of God.
The word may refer to total destruction of an entity hence it means “destruction” as it is used to describe the spiritual law of sowing and reaping in Galatians 6:8:
The one who sows to please his sinful nature, from that nature will reap destruction; the one who sows to please the Spirit, from the Spirit will reap eternal life.
The word may refer to inward depravity so that it is translated “corruption” in Apostle Peter’s description of the depravity associated with the world as stated in 2 Peter 1:4:
Through these he has given us his very great and precious promises, so that through them you may participate in the divine nature and escape the corruption in the world caused by evil desires.
In our passage of 1 Corinthians 15:50, the word is used to refer to state of being perishable and so it has the sense of being subject to “decomposition.” Hence, the word is indeed another way to describe the human body that is subject to decay.
The word “imperishable” is translated from a Greek word (aphtharsia) that pertains to the state of not being subject to decay hence the word has the meaning “immortality” as it is used to describe a result of Christ’s death on the cross in 2 Timothy 1:10:
but it has now been revealed through the appearing of our Savior, Christ Jesus, who has destroyed death and has brought life and immortality to light through the gospel.
The word has the meaning of “unceasing” or “undying” as it is used to describe the kind of love believers ought to have towards the Lord Jesus as used in Apostle Paul’s final greetings to the Ephesians as recorded in Ephesians 6:24:
Grace to all who love our Lord Jesus Christ with an undying love.
The meaning “imperishable” is used in 1 Corinthians 15:54:
When the perishable has been clothed with the imperishable, and the mortal with immortality, then the saying that is written will come true: “Death has been swallowed up in victory.”
In our passage of 1 Corinthians 15:50, the Greek word has the sense of “incorruptibility,” that is, the incapability of decay. Thus, the word is a reference to the resurrection body that is incapable of decay or decomposition.
In any case, when the apostle wrote the clause of 1 Corinthians 15:50 nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable he meant that the earthly body that is subject to decay will not somehow become incapable of decay. This is a way to say that there is no continuation between the present body and the resurrection body. Our resurrection body will not be a markup of our present body. No! There will be no connection between the two. This assertion raises a question about what Jesus Christ said about His body after His resurrection as we read in Luke 24:37-39:
37 They were startled and frightened, thinking they saw a ghost. 38 He said to them, "Why are you troubled, and why do doubts rise in your minds? 39 Look at my hands and my feet. It is I myself! Touch me and see; a ghost does not have flesh and bones, as you see I have."
Our Lord has a body that was covered with flesh but if this was similar to the original flesh He had, why will the disciples not recognize him? Although we cannot fully understand the resurrection body of Christ as He appeared to the disciples but whatever His body looked like, it was intended to prove that His resurrection was real. He had scars associated with crucifixion implying that there was a similarity between the body He had before and after resurrection. However, we should still understand that His body prior to resurrection never decayed while in the grave and He was still moving about on the planet until His final ascension to heaven. There must have been a further transformation of His body when He finally returned to heaven so that as we stated previously, Apostle John could not recognize Him when He appeared to him on the Island of Patmos. John’s description of Christ is given in the passage we cited previously, that is, in Revelation 1:14:
His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
This description of Jesus Christ was nothing like John knew that was his reason for not recognizing Him. Therefore, we contend that the body of Christ underwent a further transformation as He permanently returned to heaven, otherwise, it is difficult to make sense of the description of Him as Apostle John gave. Anyway, we contend that based on 1 Corinthians 15:50, there will be no connection between our present body and resurrection body. In application, you are worldly if you judge others purely on how they look or what their body looks like. If you are not drawn to a person because of inward pleasing character, you are worldly. It does not make sense to live as a Christian based on that which will never be a part of a person in heaven. In any event, let me end by reminding you the message of this section of 1 Corinthians 15:45-50 we have expounded that we described as the fourth paragraph of the major section of 1 Corinthians 15:35-50 that is concerned with the nature of resurrection body is that The last Adam, the God man, Jesus Christ is eminently superior to first man, Adam.
11/17/23