Lessons # 105 and 106
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+ 1. It is best to use this note after you have listened to the lessons because there are +
+ comments given in the actual delivery not in the note. +
+ 2. The Bible abbreviations are as follows: CEV =Contemporary English version, +
+ CEB = Common English Bible, ESV= English Standard Version, +
+ GW = God’s Word, ISV = International Standard Version, +
+ NAB=New American Bible, NASB= New American Standard Bible, +
+ NEB= New English Bible, NET = New English Translation, +
+ NLT = New Living Translations NJB = New Jerusalem Bible, +
+ NJV = New Jewish Bible, TEV = Today’s English Version. +
+AMP = Amplified Bible, UBS = United Bible Society +
+ HCSB = Holman Christian Standard Bible +
+ 3. Notes have not been edited for grammatical errors. +
+ 4. Text is based on 1984 edition of the NIV +
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Revealed Righteousness – assertion, facts, and reasons (Rom 3:21-24)
21 But now a righteousness from God, apart from law, has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. 22 This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference, 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus.
In our last study, we indicated the section of Romans 3:21-31 that is concerned with righteousness through faith that is revealed as the apostle discoursed may be studied by recognizing that there are three major declarations of the apostle. First, in verses 21 to 24, the apostle declared the fact of revealed righteousness with other facts and reasons for the revealed righteousness. Second, the apostle declared that God set forth Christ as our expiation/propitiation in verses 25 and 26. Third, in Romans 3:27-31, he communicated that revealed righteousness or justification by faith excludes any form of boasting as he makes his conclusion based on the facts he marshalled out in the section. We stated that to help us understand this section that deals with revealed righteousness, it is necessary for us to focus on each of the three major declarations of the apostle so that we may harness the messages contained in the various declarations of the apostle in passage of Romans 3:21-31. We began with the first, that is, verses 21 to 24 in our last study. Consequently, we stated its message which is that God’s revealed righteousness that is independent of the law and obtained through faith in Christ, is necessary because all humans do not meet God’s approval. We also considered four facts the apostle communicated. The first fact the apostle conveyed is that the righteousness he was concerned with beginning in Romans 3:21 is focused on God and not on humans as in the phrase a righteousness from God. The second fact the apostle communicated about the righteousness of God is that it is independent of the law, that is, that it does not involve carrying out the requirements of the law. The third fact the apostle communicated about this righteousness, that is his focus, is that it has been revealed. The fourth fact the apostle communicated about this righteousness, that is his focus, is that it has been testified in the past in the OT Scripture. It is with this that we ended our last study, so we will continue this morning with the fifth fact the apostle communicated.
The fifth fact the apostle communicated about this righteousness, that is his focus, is that it is available through faith in Jesus Christ. It is this fact the apostle stated in the first sentence of Romans 3:22 This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. The verb “comes” of the NIV84 or the verbal phrase “is given” of the NIV2011 is not in the Greek text. The Greek does not read smoothly as we find in the NIV or in our English versions. You see, a literal translation from the Greek reads and (the) righteousness of God through faith of Jesus Christ for all the (ones) believing. The literal translation as we have given it indicates that there are problems with how to read the Greek into the English.
The first problem with the first sentence of Romans 3:22 is with the literal word “and” we used in the literal translation that is not translated in the NIV and many of our English versions. The word “and” in the literal translation is translated from a Greek particle (de). The Greek particle is routinely translated “but” in our English versions to reflect a contrast between clauses but when a simple connective is desired, without contrast being clearly implied, it may be translated “and” or “now” and in certain occurrences the particle may be left untranslated. It can also be used to link segments of a narrative with the translation “then, so” or to indicate transition to something new. Other times, the particle is used to provide explanation so may be translated “that is.” In our passage of Romans 3:22, it is subject to at least three interpretations. It may be interpreted as used to resume a discourse that was briefly interrupted. This interpretation would imply that the clause of Romans 3:21 to which the Law and the Prophets testify is parenthetical. In effect, that this clause interrupts the apostle’s focus on the “righteousness from God” since its exclusion does not disrupt the apostle’s point that he made regarding the righteousness from God that is revealed. This being the case, we can say that the apostle digressed to provide additional information that does not necessarily add to his point. It is this interpretation that is reflected in the NET that enclosed the clause in parenthesis. This would imply that after it the apostle returned in verse 22 to the topic of righteousness from God. This being the case, the Greek particle may not be translated. Another interpretation of the Greek particle used in our verse is that it is used for emphasis on the subject of “the righteousness from God” so that it may be translated “even” as reflected in such English versions as the NASB and the Authorized Version (KJV). Still another interpretation is that it is used to provide further explanation to the subject of “the righteousness from God” in which case it may be translated “namely’” as in the NET or “that is” as in the HCSB. It is probably that the apostle used the Greek particle to provide an emphatic explanation of the subject of “the righteousness from God” and he did it in a way that indicates that his explanation contrasts with the righteousness that the Jews believed can be attained through the keeping of the Mosaic Law.
We assert that the apostle explained in an emphatic and in contrasting manner “the righteousness from God” in such a way that leaves no doubt it could not be obtained through keeping of the Mosaic law. So, he tells us of how this righteousness is to be obtained in the verbal phrase of the NIV of Romans 3:22 comes through faith in Jesus Christ. As we indicated previously, the word “comes” of the NIV84 or “is given” of NIV2011 is not in the Greek text since literally the Greek reads through faith of Jesus Christ. The literal phrase through faith of Jesus Christ contains what I will describe as the second, the third, and fourth problems in the interpretation of Romans 3:22.
The second problem of Romans 3:22 is with the word “through.” This is because the word “through” is translated from a Greek preposition (dia) with a basic meaning of “through”, but it has other nuances. The word may mean “by” used in different ways. The meaning “by” may be used a marker of the instrument by which something is accomplished. The meaning “by” may be used as a marker of the means between two events. The word may mean “because” as a marker of reason something happens. In our passage of Romans 3:22, the preposition is subjected to two possible interpretations. It could be interpreted as the reason this righteousness that is the apostle’s focus is attained so that the preposition may be translated “because” or it could be interpreted as the means this righteousness is obtained and so may be translated “through.” The first interpretation is possible, as reflected in the translation of this verse we are considering in the CEV that used the word “because” in their translation that reads He accepts people only because they have faith in Jesus Christ. However, it is more fitting to take the preposition as providing the means of attaining this righteousness as reflected in majority of our English versions. The majority interpretation is preferred since that is the sense the Greek preposition is used by the apostle to describe the righteousness he received through faith in Jesus Christ in Philippians 3:9:
and be found in him, not having a righteousness of my own that comes from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ—the righteousness that comes from God and is by faith.
The third problem in the interpretation of Romans 3:22 is with the word “faith” in the verbal phrase of the NIV of Romans 3:22 comes through faith in Jesus Christ. The word “faith” is translated from a Greek noun (pistis) although often translated “faith” has several other meanings. The Greek word may mean “faith” in the active sense of believing or trusting in someone; the kind of believing that brings salvation. Another meaning of the Greek word translated “faith” is “faithfulness, true piety or genuine devotion or even firm commitment.” Stephen was described as one who had a genuine devotion or firm commitment to the Lord Jesus Christ in that he did not waver in what he believed but was fully devoted to the Lord. This is the sense of the word “faith” in Acts 6:5:
This proposal pleased the whole group. They chose Stephen, a man full of faith and of the Holy Spirit; also Philip, Procorus, Nicanor, Timon, Parmenas, and Nicolas from Antioch, a convert to Judaism.
Another meaning of the Greek word translated “faith” is as an important virtue that Christians should have, or they have as a result of believing in Christ or as a result of the Holy Spirit operating in them. So, it is used to describe “faithfulness” that is an aspect of the fruit of the Spirit given in Galatians 5:22:
But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness,
That faith refers to an important Christian virtue is evident in the fact that it is often associated with the virtue of love and so Apostle Paul used it in his epistle to Timothy encouraging him what he should have as he taught the sound doctrine of the Christian faith in 2 Timothy 1:13:
What you heard from me, keep as the pattern of sound teaching, with faith and love in Christ Jesus.
Another meaning of the Greek word translated “faith” is a reference to a religious movement such as the Christian faith, which is essentially the same as “the Christian religion.” It is in this sense that Apostle Paul used it to describe what people heard about him following his conversion as stated in Galatians 1:23:
They only heard the report: “The man who formerly persecuted us is now preaching the faith he once tried to destroy.”
Paul’s former effort was focused on exterminating Christians and so the Christian movement. Thus, what he tried to destroy is not so much the preaching of the gospel but the Christian movement since if he stopped the movement, he would have destroyed the Christian religion. Of course, that was not to be the case as he was converted and became one of the most fervent advocates of the Christian movement.
Still another meaning of the Greek word translated “faith” is “body of teaching” or “doctrine.” It is in this way that the word “faith” is used to describe what will happen to some at a later time in that they would move away from sound teaching of God’s word as we read in 1 Timothy 4:1:
The Spirit clearly says that in later times some will abandon the faith and follow deceiving spirits and things taught by demons.
It is possible that “faith” here can also be interpreted as the “Christian faith,” but it is more likely the apostle meant Christian doctrine especially because of the expression things taught by demons. It is the sense of doctrine or body of teaching of the Christian faith that “faith” is used in Jude 3:
Dear friends, although I was very eager to write to you about the salvation we share, I felt I had to write and urge you to contend for the faith that was once for all entrusted to the saints.
In our passage of Romans 3:22, the Greek word is subject to two meanings: “faithfulness” or “faith” in the sense of “believing/trusting in someone.” Majority of our English versions used the meaning “faith” while a handful such as the NET and the ISV use the meaning “faithfulness.” Each meaning is possible because of the fourth problem we will get to shortly. We reserve any comment about the meaning the apostle meant until we consider the fourth problem.
The fourth problem in the interpretation of Romans 3:22 in the verbal phrase of the NIV of Romans 3:22 comes through faith in Jesus Christ is how to relate the word “faith” to Jesus Christ since literally the phrase reads faith of Jesus Christ. The apostle used a genitive in the Greek so that the question is whether the apostle meant to say, “the faithfulness of Jesus Christ” as reflected in the NET or “faith in Jesus Christ” as in the NIV and majority of our English versions. It is difficult to decide because the Greek permits either of the two interpretations and scholars have adequately defended both views. Furthermore, either interpretation conveys that which is true and so there is no question of erroneous interpretation involved in either interpretation. It is because of the faithfulness of Christ that we have salvation, and it is also through faith in Him that we have salvation. This may be a case where both interpretations are intended to fully convey what the Holy Spirit intended for us to understand through what the apostle wrote. In other words, the Holy Spirit wants to remind us that it is because Jesus Christ is faithful that it is possible for anyone to appropriate the righteousness the apostle had focused. It is because of Jesus Christ’s faithfulness that He died on the cross to pay for our sins. Even before Jesus Christ died on the cross, there are facts that attest to His faithfulness during His earthly ministry. Jesus indicated that while on the earth He always did what pleased the Father, according to John 8:29:
The one who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone, for I always do what pleases him."
To do what pleases God always, implies continuous obedience to His instructions and so the Lord Jesus spoke of His obedience to the Father in John 15:10:
If you obey my commands, you will remain in my love, just as I have obeyed my Father's commands and remain in his love.
Furthermore, Jesus Christ spoke of His faithfulness in His priestly prayer when He asserted that He completed His assignment in John 17:4:
I have brought you glory on earth by completing the work you gave me to do.
When Jesus made this statement, He has not yet been to the cross but His death on the cross was certain that He could speak of it as something that was already accomplished for His mission to be completed. He has already served as the One God sent in that He had already communicated information about the kingdom of God, but it remained at the time of this prayer for Him to die on the cross so as to serve as our High Priest. Jesus Christ did not wiggle out of dying on the cross. Instead, He died on the cross so that He atoned for our sins; and in so doing, He proved Himself a faithful or reliable High Priest who did what He agreed to do. Jesus Christ did completely and satisfactorily all that the Father assigned to Him. It is also because of His faithfulness that He continues to serve as our priest so that it could be said that He provides complete salvation to us as the Holy Spirit through the human author of Hebrews informed us in Hebrews 7:25:
Therefore he is able to save completely those who come to God through him, because he always lives to intercede for them.
The sentence because he always lives to intercede for them is one that certainly speaks of the faithfulness of Jesus Christ. Anyhow, the Holy Spirit through Apostle Paul also wanted to remind us that appropriation of the righteousness that the apostle wrote in Romans 3:22 is also through faith, that is, believe/trust, in Jesus Christ. For unless that is the case, there would be no need to require that anyone should put their faith in Jesus Christ for eternal salvation that results in receiving the righteousness of God the apostle is concerned in our passage of study. Of course, we know that the apostle, as he preached the gospel, focused on faith in Christ Jesus, as for example, Luke reported of the apostle doing so before Governor Felix as recorded in Acts 24:24:
Several days later Felix came with his wife Drusilla, who was a Jewess. He sent for Paul and listened to him as he spoke about faith in Christ Jesus.
Faith in Christ Jesus is necessary for salvation and so for appropriating the righteousness the apostle is concerned in the passage of Romans 3 that we are studying. The importance of faith in Christ is evident when Apostle Paul answered the question of the Philippian Jailor of what he should do to be saved as recorded in Acts 16:30–31:
30 He then brought them out and asked, “Sirs, what must I do to be saved?” 31 They replied, “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved—you and your household.”
The implication of what we have explained is that either translation “the faithfulness of Jesus Christ” as reflected in the NET or “faith in Jesus Christ” as in the NIV can be adopted but that the teacher of Romans 3:22 should offer the explanation we have given. In any event, the fifth fact the apostle communicated about this righteousness, that is his focus, is that it is available through faith, that is, believe/trust, in Jesus Christ and made available because of His faithfulness.
The sixth fact the apostle communicated about this righteousness, that is his focus, is that it is available to anyone who believes in Jesus Christ. It is this fact that the apostle stated in the clause of Romans 3:22 to all who believe. Literally, the Greek reads for all the (ones) believing. The word “all” is translated from a Greek adjective (pas) that may mean “all” or “every” or “any,” among other meanings. Quite often when we encounter the word “all” or “everything” we think in terms of absolute totality but that is not always correct. The word “all” is here taken by some as referring to the totality of humanity in the sense that this righteousness is universally available to everyone. This is a general statement but the context of actually appropriation of the righteousness requires that we understand “all” as used to refer not to the entire people on this planet but in entirety of a class, specifically the elect, so that the sense of the Greek word in Romans 3:22 is “the whole” or “entirety” of the class defined in the clause who believe or literally the (ones) believing.
The word “believe” is translated from a Greek verb (pisteuō) that its predominant meaning in the Greek NT is “to believe”, that is, “to think something to be true” as Apostle Paul used it to describe what he thought about the report of division in the church of Corinth that he received as we read in 1 Corinthians 11:18:
In the first place, I hear that when you come together as a church, there are divisions among you, and to some extent I believe it.
The Greek word may also mean “to trust”, with the implication of total commitment to the one who is trusted, as it is used in Apostle Paul’s instruction through Titus regarding the conduct of those who have trusted God as stated in Titus 3:8:
This is a trustworthy saying. And I want you to stress these things, so that those who have trusted in God may be careful to devote themselves to doing what is good. These things are excellent and profitable for everyone.
The word may have the sense of “putting something to the care of another,” that is, “to entrust” as Apostle Paul used it to indicate that the preaching of the gospel to the Gentiles is a task given to him, as we read in Galatians 2:7:
On the contrary, they saw that I had been entrusted with the task of preaching the gospel to the Gentiles, just as Peter had been to the Jews.
In our passage of Romans 3:22, the word has the sense of “to trust or believe,” that is, “to entrust oneself to an entity in complete confidence with implication of total commitment to the one who is trusted.” The apostle used a participle in the Greek. The participle the apostle used is intended to convey to us that he was speaking of the kind of persons that continue to believe. In effect, there is never a time when anyone that appropriates this righteousness is seen as one that at some point stops believing. No! The apostle refers to the class of individuals that continually believe. It is true that the apostle did not specify the object of the belief, but it is implied that he had Jesus Christ in mind. We say this because we indicated that the literal Greek phrase of Romans 3:22 faith of Jesus Christ may also be translated as faith in Jesus Christ. Hence although the object of faith is not specified in the clause of Romans 3:22 who believe, the apostle meant that Jesus Christ is the object of the believing since salvation is associated with faith in Jesus Christ. We see that Jesus Christ is the object of belief for salvation as implied in John 3:18:
Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because he has not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son.
Apostle Paul meant that the object of belief that appropriates righteousness that is the concern of the apostle in the passage we are studying is Jesus Christ, as the apostle used it to convey that a person receives justification by believing in Jesus Christ as stated in Acts 13:39:
Through him everyone who believes is justified from everything you could not be justified from by the law of Moses.
Luke reports of those who believed in Corinth as believing in the Lord Jesus as he narrated for us in Acts 18:8:
Crispus, the synagogue ruler, and his entire household believed in the Lord; and many of the Corinthians who heard him believed and were baptized.
Hence, although the apostle simply wrote in Romans 3:22 all who believe, he meant that the object of belief is Jesus Christ.
All the same, Apostle Paul leaves no doubt that when he used the clause of Romans 3:22 all who believe, that he included everyone that indeed believes in Jesus Christ regardless of any human factor by which people differentiate themselves such as ethnicity, gender, economic and social status. All are in the same sinful condition and so each believer receives salvation the same way. It is for this reason that the apostle made the statement of the last sentence of Romans 3:22 There is no difference. This sentence is an emphatic reason or cause for asserting that all who believe receive the righteousness that is the concern of the apostle in our passage. We say this because the apostle began it with a Greek conjunction (gar) that is not translated in the NIV that has several usages. For example, it can be used as a marker of inference with the meaning “so, then, by all means” or it can be used as a marker of cause or reason for something in which case it may be translated “for, because.” In our verse, it is used as a marker of reason and so should be translated “for” or “because” as reflected in majority of our English versions. The meaning “because” is used in the TEV while “since” is used in HCSB. This aside, the apostle wrote in Romans 3:22 There is no difference. The word “difference” is translated from a Greek noun (diastolē) that means “distinction, difference.” It is with the meaning “difference” that Apostle Paul used it to convey that the benefit of the death of Christ is for everyone who believes in Him regardless of whether the person is a Jew, or a Gentile as stated in Romans 10:12:
For there is no difference between Jew and Gentile—the same Lord is Lord of all and richly blesses all who call on him.
In our passage of Romans 3:22, the Greek word means “distinction,” that is, “a discrimination between things as different and distinct.” Anyway, when the apostle wrote in Romans 3:22 There is no difference he meant to convey that the righteousness, that is his focus, is received the same way by Jews and Gentiles since they are both under sin. This is to say that there are not two ways of obtaining salvation that involves work or faith. There is only one way, which is faith in Jesus Christ. Apostle Peter clearly stated this truth to the audience that witnessed the miracle of the healing of the crippled man as stated in Acts 4:12:
Salvation is found in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given to men by which we must be saved.”
So, it is not surprising when some in the early church implied that salvation of Gentiles was not complete without observing the Mosaic law that the same Apostle Peter spoke up to convey that there is only one way to salvation both for Jews and Gentiles as recorded in Acts 15:9:
He made no distinction between us and them, for he purified their hearts by faith.
It is this truth Apostle Peter conveyed during the first church council that is echoed by Apostle Paul when, concerning the righteousness that is his concern in the passage we are studying, he wrote in Romans 3:22 There is no difference. Anyhow, the sixth fact the apostle communicated about this righteousness, that is his focus, is that it is available to anyone who believes in Jesus Christ whether Jew or Gentile.
The apostle having stated that there is no difference among humans regarding how to receive this righteousness and that it had to be received by faith in Jesus Christ, explained why no difference exists in how it is received. His first reason, which is also the first reason revealed righteousness from God is necessary, is that all humans are sinners. This he stated in the first clause of Romans 3:23 for all have sinned. This clause is concerned with reason there is no difference regarding how righteousness of God is obtained and the necessity for righteousness from God. We say this because the word “for” is translated from the same Greek conjunction (gar) we mentioned previously that has several usages. This time, it is used to provide reason for what preceded, that is, the fact there is no difference between Jews and Gentiles regarding the obtaining of God’s righteousness and so it may be translated “for” as in majority of our English versions or “because” as in the TEV and GW. This aside, the apostle wrote for all have sinned.
The word “sinned” is translated from a Greek verb (hamartanō) that may mean “to sin” as the word is used in the instruction of the Holy Spirit through Apostle Paul regarding how to ensure that anger does not lead to sin as stated in Ephesians 4:26:
“In your anger do not sin”: Do not let the sun go down while you are still angry,
The word may mean “to do wrong” as it is used in 1 Peter 2:20:
But how is it to your credit if you receive a beating for doing wrong and endure it? But if you suffer for doing good and you endure it, this is commendable before God.
In our passage of Romans 3:23, the word means “to sin,” that is, to “violate a divine law.” The apostle used an aorist tense in the Greek that here means that the apostle just stated the fact of humans having sinned without being concerned with when it first occurred with Adam or how it continues today. It is simply a fact that all humans have violated divine laws.
The thing the apostle said next is probably to be understood as both an explanation and result of the fact of sin in humanity. We said this because word “and” in the second clause of Romans 3:23 and fall short of the glory of God. A literal translation from the Greek is and are falling short of the glory of God since a present tense is used in the Greek. Before we consider this verbal phrase, there is the question as to how we should understand the word “and” used in it. There are three possibilities. The word “and” may be read to indicate that the apostle added another thing that happened to humanity. It could be understood to mean that it is used to explain what preceded it, that is, that it indicates the verbal phrase explains what it means that all have sinned. This is possible since the Greek particle (kai) translated “and” may be used as a marker of explanation in which case it may be translated “that is” or “namely.” Still another interpretation of the Greek particle translated “and” is that it is used here to provide the result of all humans having sinned. This is possible because the Greek particle in question may also be used to indicate that it introduces the result of what preceded it in which case it may be translated “and so.” All three interpretations are possible, but it is probably that the Holy Spirit through the apostle wanted to focus on a result of sin. In effect, the apostle was more concerned with the result of sin than providing explanation of what it means that all sinned. This should not be difficult to accept since later the apostle mentioned the effect of sin on humanity in Romans 5:12
Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned—
The point we want to stress is that the verbal phrase of Romans 3:23 fall short of the glory of God states a result of sin of humanity.
The expression “fall short” is translated from a Greek verb (hystereō) that may mean “to lack” in the sense of being in short supply hence also means “to fail, to give out” as the word is used in Jesus’ answer to the question of the rich young man that asked Him about what to do to inherit eternal life, as we read in Mark 10:21:
Jesus looked at him and loved him. “One thing you lack,” he said. “Go, sell everything you have and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven. Then come, follow me.”
The Greek word may mean “to lack” in the sense of to be in need of something, as it is used in Jesus’ question to the disciples if they needed anything when He sent them out on a mission work, as recorded in Luke 22:35:
Then Jesus asked them, “When I sent you without purse, bag or sandals, did you lack anything?” “Nothing,” they answered.
The word may mean to be lower in status hence “to be less, to be inferior to”, as Apostle Paul used it to describe himself to the Corinthians in comparison to those called “super apostles” as state in 2 Corinthians 12:11:
I have made a fool of myself, but you drove me to it. I ought to have been commended by you, for I am not in the least inferior to the “super-apostles,” even though I am nothing.
The Greek word may mean “to lack” in the sense of to experience deficiency in something advantageous or desirable; thus, with the additional meaning of “to go without, come short of” as Apostle Paul used it to describe his orientation to things of this life that are necessities in Philippians 4:12:
I know what it is to be in need, and I know what it is to have plenty. I have learned the secret of being content in any and every situation, whether well fed or hungry, whether living in plenty or in want.
The Greek word may mean to miss out on something through one’s fault hence means “to miss, to fail to reach” as it is used in Hebrews 12:15:
See to it that no one misses the grace of God and that no bitter root grows up to cause trouble and defile many.
Of these various meanings of the Greek word, it is the meaning of “to fail to attain” in the sense of to experience deficiency in something advantageous or desirable that the apostle used it in our passage of Romans 3:23. As we indicated previously, the apostle used a present tense in the Greek which is to be interpreted to mean that the apostle is concerned to state a fact of the result of something that is associated with sin without being concerned with its continuity although true. He, again, stated what is factual. It is a fact that continues to be true at the present and will continue to be true in the future that all humans continue to fail to attain what the apostle described. The apostle used a passive voice in the Greek, implying that someone acted on humans so that they failed to attain something. The actor ultimately is God.
The thing all humans failed to attain because of sin is given in the phrase of Romans 3:23 the glory of God. Thus, what all humans have failed to attain is the glory of God. Anyhow, this failure is often quoted by believers and so we need to understand what the apostle meant when he wrote in Romans 3:23 fall short of the glory of God. There are four general interpretations offered by scholars regarding what this verbal phrase means. The first interpretation is that it means a loss of the image or glory of God which man had at creation but lost through the fall. The second interpretation is that it means to fail to render to God the glory, to fail to glorify Him or do what is to the praise of His glory. The third is that it means not achieving the glorious goals that God had set for people. The fourth is that it means to fail of receiving the glory, honor, or approbation which God bestows. All the interpretations state what is true, but it seems to me that the interpretation of the verbal phrase hinges on the interpretation of the phrase glory of God. Its interpretation favors more closely the fourth interpretation as what the apostle had in mind as we will demonstrate.
To support that the fourth interpretation is what the apostle meant, we will focus our attention on the phrase of Romans 3:23 the glory of God. The Greek syntax involved indicates that the phrase the glory of God may be subject to at least two interpretations. It could mean the glory that characterizes God or the glory God gives. To narrow down the interpretation of what the apostle intended, we need to examine how he used the word “glory” in our passage.
The word “glory” is translated from a Greek noun (doxa) that may mean “brightness, splendor, radiance”, that is, the condition of being bright or shining and so it is used to describe the physical phenomenon associated with the light that blinded Paul prior to his conversion while on his way to Damascus to persecute Christians, as stated in Acts 22:11:
My companions led me by the hand into Damascus, because the brilliance of the light had blinded me.
The phrase the brilliance of the light is more literally the brightness of the light. The word when used of God means “glory” that could refer to “His power, brilliance, splendor, presence, authority, and majesty.” It is the context that determines which of these meanings is most applicable. Take for example, the word is translated “glory” in connection with the second coming of Jesus Christ as it is used to narrate what He stated in Matthew 16:27:
For the Son of Man is going to come in his Father’s glory with his angels, and then he will reward each person according to what he has done.
Because after the word “glory,” the verse goes on to speak of judgment, “glory” here has the sense of authority of God the Father. Take another example, the word “glory” is used to describe that which is associated with an angel that announced the birth of Jesus to the shepherds as narrated in Luke 2:9:
An angel of the Lord appeared to them, and the glory of the Lord shone around them, and they were terrified.
The phrase glory of the Lord is here a visible manifestation of divine presence that appeared in form of light or radiance. Take another example of the word “glory” being used to describe an effect of Jesus’ miracle of turning water into wine that the Holy Spirit through Apostle John indicates reveals an element of Jesus’ true nature in John 2:11:
This, the first of his miraculous signs, Jesus performed at Cana in Galilee. He thus revealed his glory, and his disciples put their faith in him.
The sentence He thus revealed his glory, according to the UBS Translators’ Handbook, may be translated “there he showed how wonderful he was.” Of course, what Jesus revealed was His power or might in the miracle so that “glory” here refers to His power or might. Still take another example where Apostle Paul used the word in the context of speaking about God and His promises to the Corinthians as we read in 2 Corinthians 1:20:
For no matter how many promises God has made, they are “Yes” in Christ. And so through him the “Amen” is spoken by us to the glory of God.
Glory here refers either to the “honor” or “praise” of God. Thus, we see that the meaning of the word “glory” depends on the context. In our passage of Romans 3:23, the word has the sense of “recognition”.
Our interpretation that the word “glory” means “recognition” in Romans 3:23, implies that the phrase of Romans 3:23 the glory of God should be understood as the recognition that God gives or that is from Him. Thus, because all sinned, all humans failed to be recognized by God as meeting His righteous demands. In effect, the result of sin in humanity is that God does not recognize us as being in good standing with Him. This means that the fourth interpretation of what the apostle meant in the verbal phrase fall short of the glory of God is what the apostle meant only that we state it more precisely to mean that all have failed to receive God’s recognition as being in good standing with Him. This recognition begins here and proceeds to eternity. If a person believes in Christ and so receives God’s righteousness as a gift, God recognizes the person both now and in eternity but if a person does not, such an individual is not recognized by God both now and in the eternal state. We humans are often thrilled to be recognized by the powerful and wealthy. This is nothing in comparison to being recognized by the supreme creator, God. There is nothing like it both here and in the eternal state. I am saying to you that it is awesome to be recognized by God, the creator of heavens and earth. Anyhow, Apostle Paul conveyed that a result of all humans having sinned is that God does not recognize any naturally born human as being righteous or as having met His righteous demands. It is for this reason that revealed righteousness has become necessary. There is another reason revealed righteousness is necessary, but we are out of time, so we will take this up in our next study. Nonetheless, let me end by reminding you of the message of this section that we have been considering. It is that God’s revealed righteousness that is independent of the law and obtained through faith in Christ, is necessary because all humans do not meet God’s approval.
04/10/26